Download AIIMS Bhubaneswar Nursing Officer Exam 2018 QP

Download AIIMS Bhubaneswar Nursing Officer Exam 2018 Question Paper

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Download AIIMS Bhubaneswar Nursing Officer Exam 2018 Question Paper . AIIMS Bhubaneswar Conduct Nursing Officer  Exam 2018 on 15 Feb 2018 . Now You Can Download this Question Paper PDF from Our Website . Download Link are given below


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➧Download AIIMS Bhubaneswar Nursing Officer Exam 2018 Question Paper -



Q. 01 Stranger Anxiety develops in a child?
Answer- after 8 months of Age.


Q. 02 BCG vaccine should be Dilute in?
Answer- Normal saline


Q. 03 Urea breath test is used for diagnosis of ?
Answer- H pylori.


Q.04 Major Problem which affect growth and development EXCEPT ?
Answer- common Cold


Q.05 Which immunoglobin can cross placenta barrier ?

Answer- IgG.


Q.06 Highest Number of islet of Langerhans of Pancreas at ?
Answer- Tail.




Q.07 APTT is increases in which condition?
Answer- Hemophilia


Q.08 Korsakoff’s psycosis accurs due to deficiency of?
Answer- Thiamine


Q.09 Delusion is A disorder of ?
Answer- Thought.


Q.10 Warning sign of appendicitis ?
Answer- Rebound tenderness.


Q.11 Fever is A condition in which temperature is grater then?
Answer 37°C.


Q.12 Iron rich food Exclude One?
Answer- Milk.



Q.13 Absence of living spermatozoa is called?
Answer- Azoospermia.


Q.14 Most common type of Episiotomy incision ?
Answer- Media-lateral


Q.15 Partograph include All EXCEPT?
Answer - Pulse Rate.


Q.16 Medical therapy and treatment are included in which level of prevention?
Answer- secondary prevention.


Q.17 Which statement is correct about physiological jaundice EXCEPT?
Answer- appears with in 24hr of birth.



Q.18 Most powerful stimulus for inspiration center?
Answer- increased Co2 level.


Q.19 Normal length of Newborn at birth in inches?
Answer- 20"


Q.20 Most common withdrawal symptoms of Alcohol?
Answer- Tremors


Q.21 Shick test is used in ?
Answer. Diphtheria.


Q.22 ORS should be used within?
Answer- within 24 hours


Q.23 Temperature and time of autoclave for effective sterilization?
Answer - 121°C temperature for 15 minutes.


Q.24 Which Newborn reflex present at birth EXCEPT?
Answer- Parashute reflex.


Q.25 Cell Mediated Immunity is provided by?
Answer- By T cells



Q.26 Which position is used in dyspnoea?
Answer - Fowlers position.


Q.27 Endotoxin is produced by?
Answer- Gram negative Bacteria’s


Q.28 HCG is secreted by?
Answer – syncytotropoblast


Q.29 Hearing loss accurs if sound is more then?
Answer- 80 db.


Q.30 HCL is secreted by?
Answer - Partial cells of stomach.


Q.31 Perception without any stimulus is called ?
Answer- Hallucination



Q.32 best test for diagnosis of mental disorder.
Answer- porschach test


Q.33 Which muscle is called boxers muscles?
Answer- serratus muscle.


Q.34 Oxytocin is secerated by?
Answer- posterior pituitary


Q.35 Vaginal bleeding occurring before 28 week of gestation indicated?
Answer- Threatened abortion.


Q.36 Neurotransmitter disturbance in Alzheimer’s disease?
Answer- Acetylcholine.



Q.37 Purpose of palliative surgery?
Answer- To reduce intensity of illness.


Q.38 all the following are cause of constipation except*
(A) laxative abuse
(B) inadequate fiber intake
(C) decrease fluid intake
(D) decrease gastro intestinal motility


Q.39 Average height of new born*
(A) 28-30 inch
(B) 25-27 inch
(C) 30-32 inch
(D) 19-21 inch


Q.40 best test for diagnosis of mental disorder..*.
(A) Thematic apprecian test
(B) Porschach test
(C) Bender gestalt test
(C) Sentence completion


Q.41 A Graft Transfer Animal to Human is called -
A. Allograft
B. Heterograft
C. Xenograft
D. All


Q. 42 Relationship of fetal head and limbs to its trunk is called:
A. Lie
B. Presentation
C. Attitude
D. position


Q. 43 Biological Risk factor of the Family Except –
Answer - Air Pollution


Q. 44 Natural Contraceptive Method Except –
Answer - Diaphragm


Q. 45 Electronically clinical consult taking –
Answer - E – Consult


Q. 46 Weber test Done -
Answer - Both Conductive and Sensorineural Hearing loss



Q. 47 Pin point pupil Seen in All Except -
Answer - Pontine Hemorrhage


Q. 48 Adjustment of living with to other living and to Environment –
Answer - Adopting


Q. 49 Winging of Scapula due to -
Answer - Injury of Nerve


Q. 50 Childhood most Common Tumor –
Answer - Medulloblastomas


Q. 51 Nursing practice is required By –
Answer - Ethics



Some Incomplete Question And Answer are Given Below -

Child Participation Decision Making Process –

Type of widal Test –

Conflict Resolution Except – Resistance

Major Bones Criteria of Rheumatic level Except – Polyarthritis


Large Number of RBC Present in Drainage –

Nursing Education was Established By –

Visual Analoge Scale For -

Incubation period

Pressure Ulcer due to

Best way of increasing nutritive value of pulses –

Agent, Host, Environment is Which Concept –

Gum Inflammation –


Muscles Contractions with Resistance wave of Exercise -


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AIIMS Raipur Junior Staff Nurse Vacancy 2018 Apply Now

AIIMS Raipur Junior Staff Nurse Vacancy 2018 Apply Now

ADVERTISEMENT FOR DIFFERENT POSTS ON CONTRACT BASIS UNDER EXTRAMURAL CDC FUNDED PROJECT NO. AIIMSRPR/IEC/2017/110 ENTITLED “CAPACITY BUILDING AND STRENGTHENING OF HOSPITAL INFECTION CONTROL TO DETECT AND PREVENT ANTIMICROBIAL RESISTANCE IN INDIA” IN AIIMS, RAIPUR. Eligible candidates are invited to send their applications for below advertised posts for an extramural CDC funded project no. AIIMSRPR/IEC/2017/110 entitled “Capacity Building and Strengthening of Hospital Infection Control to detect and prevent antimicrobial resistance in India” on contract basis of one year (may be extended further depending on the work efficacy) 



➧AIIMS Raipur Junior Staff Nurse Vacancy 2018 Details - 

Name & No of Post -

  • Junior Nurse -                                  01 Post 
  • Junior Research Fellow(JRF) - 01 Post 
  • Data entry operator -                    01 Post 



➧ AIIMS Raipur Junior Staff Nurse Vacancy 2018 Details - 




Name of Post -    Junior Nurse 


No of Post -         01 Post 


Age Limit -         28 Years 




Pay Scale -         Rs.17,840 /- consolidated per month


Qualifications - 

Essential: 

Matriculation or its equivalent from a recognized Board 

a) Certificate in general Nursing and Midwifery from a recognized institution or equivalent qualification for male nurse. 

b) Should be registered ‘A’ grade Nurse & Midwife with a state Nursing council or equivalent qualification for male nurse.


Application Mode -    Offline 

Application Send To - 

Office of department of Microbiology, 
1st floor, Medical College Block, 
Gate No. -5, AIIMS, Tatibandh, 
Raipur, CG, Pin-492099

Candidates Can Also Send Their Application By -



Email -  cdcamrraipur@gmail.com


Terms and conditions -



1. Application must be filled in the prescribed format (Attached along with advertisement) and reach us on or before 26th February 2018, 05:00 PM. 

2. Only scanned copy of application downloaded from AIIMS Raipur website and duly filled will be accepted. Incomplete applications or applications without prescribed format or received after due date will not be considered.
3. Filled applications as scanned copies should be sent by email to cdcamrraipur@gmail.com. 

4. Candidates kindly ensure their eligibility for the given post. 

5. Only shortlisted candidates will be called for written test / interview. The list of the final short listed candidates will be floated on the AIIMS Raipur website by 3rd March 2018.
6. No TA/DA will be given for the same. 

7. Hard Copy of application along with 2 photographs in envelope superscribed as Application for the post_________________ under CDC funded project entitled “Capacity Building and Strengthening of Hospital Infection Control to detect and prevent antimicrobial resistance in India” should be sent in address – Office of department of Microbiology, 1st floor, Medical College Block, Gate No. -5, AIIMS, Tatibandh, Raipur, CG, Pin-492099. 

8. Original and self-attested photocopies of proof of date of birth (class 10th certificate), eligibility qualification mark-sheets, degrees, experience certificates has to be submitted by shortlisted candidates while appearing in Written Test/Interview. 

9. Any candidate found ineligible at any stage would not be allowed to proceed further for written test/ interview. 

10. No enquiries shall be entertained in this regard after due date.


For More Details & Information About Vacancy Download Official Vacancy Notification Given Below OR Visit Official Aiims Website Here - http://www.aiimsraipur.edu.in




⏩Download Vacancy Notification CLICK HERE 


Download Application Format CLICK HERE 


⏩See More Staff Nurse Vacancy CLICK HERE


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BARC Staff Nurse Job Vacancy 2018 Apply Now

BARC Staff Nurse Job Vacancy 2018 Apply Now 




Bhabha Atomic Research Centre conducts walk-in-interview for appointment of Nurses on Adhoc basis. BARC Staff Nurse Job Vacancy 2018 Details Like Name of Post, No of Post, Age limit, Qualifications, Salary, Application Mode, Date of Interview, and Last Date of Application are Given Below -










➧BARC Staff Nurse Job Vacancy 2018  Details -


Name & No of Post - 


  • Staff Nurse  -     12 Post 



➧BARC Staff Nurse Job Vacancy 2018  Details -


Name of Post -     Staff Nurse


No of Post -         12 Post


Age Limit -         Not more than 50 years


Salary -             Monthly consolidated amount – Rs. 24234/- Plus DA (pre-revised)
                            admissible to Nurse A


Qualifications - 

i) 12th Standard and Diploma in Nursing & Midwifery (3 years Course) plus Registration as Nurse with Maharashtra Nursing Council
       OR
(ii) B.Sc. (Nursing) with Registration with Maharashtra Nursing Council;
      OR
(iii) Nursing ‘A’ Certificate with 3 years experience in hospital or Nursing Assistant Class III & above from the Armed Forces


Experience - Candidate with ICCU/Operation Theatre experience will be preferred. Basic Computer Knowledge is essential as the Nurse will have to enter the details of the patients in the Computer System

Period of appointment -   Not more than 89 days at one time


Nature of appointment -  Locum- Leave Vacancy


Day & Date of Interview and Time of Interview - Monday, February 19, 2018 at 1000 hrs


Reporting time for Interview - Forms will be issued from 0830 hrs to 0900 hrs on the same day and will not be issued beyond 0900 hrs.



Venue  -
Conference Room, 
Ground floor, BARC Hospital, 
Anushaktinagar, Mumbai 400 094 


NOTE: Candidate should bring original certificates (School Leaving Certificate, SSC, HSC, Diploma/Degree passing, Marksheets & Valid Registration) of educational qualification, Registration and experience and one set of attested copies of certificates and one passport size photograph. Officers from the BARC Hospital will not attest the certificates.


⏩For More Details & Informations About Vacancy Download Official Vacancy Notification Given Below OR Visit Official BARC Website here - http://www.barc.gov.in


⏩Download Vacancy Notification CLICK HERE 



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IIIT Staff Nurse Job Vacancy 2018 Apply Now

IIIT Staff Nurse Job Vacancy 2018 Apply Now


Applications are invited online for Assistant Sports Officer, Junior Administrative Officers, Junior Finance Officer & Staff Nurse positions from 29/01/2018 to 18/02/2018. For more details, please visit Institute website: www.iiitnr.ac.in under Careers section.










➧IIIT Staff Nurse Job Vacancy 2018 Details - 

Name & No of Post -

  • Staff Nurse -                                        01 Post 
  • Assistant Sports Officer -               01 Post 
  • Junior Administrative Officers - 03 Post 
  • Junior Finance Officer  -                01 Post


➧IIIT Staff Nurse Job Vacancy 2018 Details - 

Name of Post -      Staff Nurse

No of Post -           01 Post

Age Limit -            Maximum Age Limit – 50 years, Minimum Age Limit – 20 years

Pay Scale  -             Rs. 23010/-  P.M.

Qualifications -  
a. Degree in nursing from recognized Institution/University.
b. Knowledge of computer office applications.
c. Minimum 3 years of relevant experience in a hospital recognized by the Central/State Govt./Medical Council.

Mode of Application -    ONLINE

How to apply:- Interested candidates can submit their applications online using the portal http://www.iiitnr.ac.in, which will remain open from 10:00 hrs. January 29, 2018 to 17:00 hrs. February 18, 2018


Last Date of Application -      18 February 2018



Instructions and Other Terms and Conditions -

1. Only monthly consolidated salary would be given for the above positions. The contract period would be for 1 year.

2. The number of positions is likely to change. The Institute reserves the right to fill or not to fill any or all positions.

3. Application has to be made online only. Applications made by any other mode will be outrightly rejected.

4. Online applications will be accepted till 17:00 hrs, February 18, 2018.

5. All eligibility conditions / educational qualifications must be fulfilled / acquired on or before the date of advertisement.

6. For any query or clarification etc., please contact at email id: recruitment@iiitnr.ac.in.



⏭For More Details & Information About Vacancy Download Official Vacancy Notification Given Below or Visit Official website Here - http://www.iiitnr.ac.in


⏩Download Vacancy Notification CLICK HERE 





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Download DME Kerala PSC Staff Nurse Exam 2018 Question Paper PDF

Download  DME Kerala PSC Staff Nurse Exam 2018 Question Paper PDF

Download  DME Kerala PSC Staff Nurse Exam 2018 Question Paper PDF . DME Kerala PSC Conduct Staff Nurse Exam 2018 on January 2018. Now You Can Download this Question Paper PDF from Our Website . Download Link are given below

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Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 15 with Answer

Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 15 with Answer




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Total No of Question - 50 Question with Answer 


➧Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 15 with Answer-





Q. 1. Vitamin A supplementation is given to children from the age of 1 to 6 years
for every-
A. 3 months
B. 6 Months
C. Yearly
D. 8 Months


Q. 2. Which micro-organism is associated with cervical cancer?
A. Human papilloma virus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Mylobacterium avium
D. Pheumocystis carinii


Q. 3. Normal percentage of carbohydrate in human milk is
A. 4%
B. 10%
C. 7%
D. 6%


Q. 4. A 4 years old female child vomited and her mother stated, “She vomited 200
ml of the formula feeding in this morning.” what type of data is this?
A. Objective data from a secondary source
B. Objective data from a primary source
C. Subjective data from a secondary source
D. Subjective data from a primary source


Q. 5. The nurse choose to assess an apical pulse instead of a radial pulse. Which of
the following client’s condition influenced the nurse’s decision?
A. The client had surgery 18 hrs before
B. The client has an arrhythmia
C. The client is in shock
D. A client’s response to orthostatic changes


Q. 6. Lactated Ringer’s solution is contraindicated in-
A. Hypervolemia
B. Burns
C. Lactic acidosis
D. Fluid loss as bile or diarrhea


Q. 7. ECG changes in Myocardial infarction is-
A. ST segment elevation
B. Wide ORS complex
C. Presence of U wave
D. Prolonged PR interval


Q. 8. Which of the following is not required to clot formation ?
A. Vit K
B. Calcium
C. Plasmin
D. Fibrinogen


Q. 9. A menstrual condition characterized by severe and frequent menstrual cramps
and pain associated with menstruation is termed as -
A. Dysmenorrhea
B. Amenorrhea
C. Hypermenorrhea
D. Polymenorrhea


Q. 10. Which precaution is used during phototherapy?
A. leave infant’s clothes on
B. Check the infant’s temperature once a day
C. Repositioning the infant frequently
D. Cover the infant’s eyes


Q. 11. Formula for IQ is =
A. IQ = MA/CA
B. IQ = MA/CA x 100
C. IQ = CA/MA x 100
D. IQ = CA/MA


Q. 12. Body temperature is regulated by -
A. Kidney
B. Lungs
C. Heart
D. Hypothalamus


Q. 13. Normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure is -
A. 110 -180 mm of H2O
B. 180-300 mm of H2O
C. 200- 400 mm of H2O
D. 5 – 10 mm of H2O

Q. 14. Another name for knee- chest position -
A. Genu–dorsal
B. Genu-pectoral
C. Lithotomy
D. Sim’s


Q. 15. The nurse should monitor the patients after the thrombolytic therapy for the
following adverse effects -
A. Chest pain
B. Cyanosis
C. Hemoptysis
D. Tachycardia


Q. 16. Megaloblastic anemia is caused by-
A. Vitamin B12 and folate
B. Protein deficiency
C. Thiamine deficiency
D. Vitamin C deficiency


Q. 17. Which one of the following is not a diuretic -?
A. Enalapril
B. Mannitol
C. Spironolactone
D. Furosemide


Q. 18. Pentavalent vaccine protects against -
A. DPT, Measles, Rubella
B. DPT, Polio, Hepatitis B.
C. DPT, Polio, Hepatitis A
D. DPT, haemophilus influenza-b, Hepatitis B


Q. 19. FSH is secreted by -
A. Ovary
B. Hypothalamus
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Posterior pituitary


Q. 20. The most common symptom of esophageal carcinoma would be -
A. Sore throat
B. Dysphagia
C. Weight loss
D. Haemorrhage

Q. 21. The cardinal sign of meningitis is -
A. Kernig’s sign
B. Diarrhea
C. Common cold
D. Fever


Q. 22. How many calories are there in 1 gm of fat?
A. 9 calories
B. 7 calories
C. 5 calories
D. 25 calories

Q. 23. Which nutrient helps in tissue repair?
A. Fat
B. Protein
C. Vitamin
D. Carbohydrate


Q. 24. Infective type of food poisoning -
A. Salmonella
B. Staphylococcus
C. Clostridium
D. coli


Q. 25. The most common pathologic findings in individuals at risk for sudden
cardiac death is -
A. Aortic valve disease
B. Mitral valve disease
C. Left ventricular dysfunction
D. Atherosclerotic heart disease


Q. 26. Low protein diet is ordered for patients with -
A. Anaemia
B. Acute nephritis
C. Burns
D. Gastritis


Q. 27. Sites for bone marrow examination include all except –
A. Sternum
B. Posterior superior iliac spine
C. Lumbar vertebrae
D. Femur


Q. 28. Bromhexine drugs are used for –
A. Leprosy
B. Acute myeloid leukaemia
C. Oesophagitis
D. To liquify respiratory secretions


Q. 29. Structures of the body that are responsible for conveying information /
message around the body are called -
A. Lymphocyte
B. Alveoli
C. Neurons
D. Nephrons

Q. 30. How many drops in a standard drip set makes one ml ?
A. 20
B. 16
C. 15
D. 10


Q. 31. Which of the following minerals should be taken by a child suffering from
Rickets?
A. Potassium
B. Calcium
C. Sodium
D. Iron


Q. 32. Heat application is contraindicated in appendicitis because it -
A. Can cause the appendix to rupture and cause peritonitis
B. Can mask symptoms of acute appendicitis
C. Will increase peristalsis throughout the abdomen
D. Will arrest progression of the disease


Q. 33. Kaposi’s sarcoma is associated with-
A. Human papilloma virus
B. Human T cell lymphocytic virus type (HTLV-1)
C. Human immunodeficiency virus
D. Epstein Barr virus


Q. 34. While instilling ear drops, the ear canal of an adult is straightened by pulling
the pinna -
A. Down and back
B. Up and back
C. Straight down
D. Straight back


Q. 35. Frozen DPT vaccine should be -
A. Shaken thoroughly before use
B. Allowed to melt before use
C. Discarded
D. Brought to room temperature before use


Q. 36. The most common cause of blindness in India is -
A. Cataract
B. Trachoma
C. Refractive errors
D. Vitamin deficiency


Q. 37. Human milk is rich in all, Except -
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Iron
D. Vitamin E


Q. 38. Window period in HIV indicates -
A. Time period between infection and onset of the first symptom
B. Time period between infection and detection of antibodies against HIV
C. Time period between infection and maximum multiplication of the causative
organism
D. None of the above


Q. 39. Islets of Langerhans produces -
A. Bile
B. Trypsin
C. Insulin
D. Rennin


Q. 40. The part of the brain, which is responsible for the coordination
of movement is -
A. Brain stem
B. Cerebellum
C. Thalamus
D. Hypothalamus


Q. 41. Anterior fontanelle normally closes between the ages -
A. 2 & 3 months
B. 12 & 18 months
C. 3 & 6 months
D. 1 &9 months


Q. 42. Which one of the following is a combined (triple) vaccine?
A. Oral polio
B. BCG
C. DPT
D. Rabies


Q. 43. Infection of the middle ear is called -
A. Sinusitis
B. Mastoiditis
C. Otitis media
D. Labyrinthitis


Q. 44. The process of development of a matured ovum is called -
A. Ovulation
B. Oophoria
C. Oogenesis
D. Oocyte


Q. 45. One teaspoonful of medicine is equal to -
A. 10 ml
B. 15 ml
C. 5 ml
D. 20 ml


Q. 46. Rods and cones are the structures of -
A. Middle ear
B. Eyes
C. Ovary
D. Lungs


Q. 47. The disease characterized by proteinuria, hypoproteinemia, diffuse edema,
high serum cholesterol and hyperlipidaemia –
A. Pyelonephritis
B. Nephrolithiasis
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Acute renal failure


Q. 48. Pertussis vaccine is contraindicated if the child has -
A. A history of convulsion
B. A history of juvenile diabetes
C. A history of jaundice
D. A history of tuberculosis


Q. 49. Vaccine contraindicated during pregnancy is -
A. Rubella
B. OPV
C. Tetanus
D. Influenza


Q. 50. Addison’s disease is otherwise called -
A. Acute adrenocortical insufficiency
B. Hyperpituitarism
C. Chronic adrenocortical insufficiency
D. Hyperaldosteronism


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