Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 17 with Answer

Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 17 with Answer



Staff nurse exam Modal Paper is Useful for nursing students who prepare for staff nurse Recruitment exam


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➧Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 17 with Answer



  • [Total Questions - 50 with Answers]


Question 1. A patient with heart failure, which is the accurate indicator of such
patient's health status?
A. Weight of the patient.
B. Urine specific gravity.
C. Vital signs.
D. Intake and output.



Question 2. Which type of data does auscultation provide?
A. Subjective.
B. Objective.
C. Secondary source.
D. Medical data.




Question 3. Which of the following is reason for intradermal injection to be used for
testing allergic reactions?
A. It diffuses rapidly.
B. It diffuses slowly.
C. Less Painful.
D. Easy to administer.



Question 4. Which route of drug administration provide a rapid response in a patient?
A. Oral.
B. Sublingual.
C. Intramuscular.
D. Subcutaneous.



Question 5. In which type of sleep most vival dreams occurs?
A. Non Hibernation sleep.
B. Rapid eye movement sleep.
C. Hibernation sleep.
D. Non rapid eye movement sleep.




Question 6. The purpose of deep palpation is to assess?
A. Skin turgor.
B. Temperature.
C. Organs.
D. Hydration.



Question 7. Colle's fracture refers to the fracture of?
A. Radius.
B. Ulna.
C. Humerus.
D. Olecranon.



Question 8. Surgical repair of hernia is?
A. Herniorrhaphy.
B. Fistulectomy.
C. Herniotomy.
D. Laparoscopy.



Question 9. Vertigo is due to problem in?
A. Middle ear.
B. Tympanic membrane.
C. Inner ear.
D. External ear.




Question 10. A score of 3 in Glasgow coma scale indicates?
A. Lethargy.
B. Deep coma.
C. Fully responsive.
D. Mutism.



Question 11. A nurse is caring for a patient subjected to total laryngectomy should
plan for?
A. Oral feeds.
B. Supine position.
C. Alternative communication method.
D. Keeping tracheostomy cuff fully inflated



Question 12. The most common adverse effect of chemotherapeutic drugs is?
A. Nausea and vomiting.
B. Constipation.
C. Diarrhoea.
D. Painful mouth sores.




Question 13. Barrel chest is seen in?
A. Kyphoscoliosis.
B. Rickets.
C. Pneumonia.
D. Emphysema.



Question 14. K bind is given to patients with?
A. Hyperkalemia.
B. Hypokalemia.
C. Hypernatremia.
D. Hyponatremia.



Question 15. Which risk factor for diabetes mellitus is Non Modifiable?
A. Poor control of BSL
B. Obesity.
C. Physical inactive.
D. Age.




Question 16. Colour blindness is due to the problem with?
A. Cones.
B. Rods.
C. Aqueous humour.
D. Lens.



Question 17. Waiter's tip" position is seen in?
A. Bell’s palsy.
B. Facial palsy.
C. Erbs palsy.
D. DDH.




Question 18. Census are done at?
A. 2 years.
B. 5 years.
C. 10 years.
D. 12 years.



Question 19. All of following are to negative health indicator EXCEPT?
A. IMR.
B. Death Rate.
C. Life Expectancy.
D. Perinatal. mortality rate.



Question 20. Which of the following listed drugs is A proton pump inhibitor?
A. Pantoprazole.
B. Ranitidine.
C. Famotidine.
D. Amikacin.



Question 21. The type of seizure which involves both sides of brain is called?
A. Generalized seizure.
B. Partial seizure.
C. Primary seizure.
D. Secondary seizure.



Question 22. Hepatitis C is most commonly transmitted through?
A. Infected blood.
B. Breast milk.
C. Sexual contact.
D. Kissing.
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Question 23. Deficiency of vitamin D in adults leads to?
A. Osteomalacia.
B. Keratomalacia.
C. Rickets.
D. Osteoporosis.



Question 24. Inhalation of cotton fiber dust over long periods of time results to?
A. Byssinosis.
B. Bagassosis.
C. Siderosis.
D. Anthracnosis’




Question 25. The method used for individual health education in community is?
A. Workshop.
B. Counselling and interview.
C. Demonstrations.
D. Role play.



Question 26. The final step in the purification of water on a large scale is?
A. Filtration.
B. Storage.
C. Boiling.
D. Disinfection.
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Question 27. Inability to retract the prepuce to reveal the glans penis is called?
A. Cryptorchidism.
B. Phimosis.
C. Epispadias.
D. Hypospadias.



Question 28. In which position the nurse place an infant to examine thyroid gland?
A. Supine.
B. Standing.
C. Prone.
D. Sitting.



Question 29. Which of these is A cyanotic heart disease?
A. ASD.
B. VSD.
C. TOF.
D. PDA.



Question 30. Sway back appearance is seen in a child with?
A. Talipes.
B. Lordosis.
C. Kyphosis.
D. Scoliosis.



Question 31. Bitot's spots are found due to deficiency of vitamin?

A. C.
B. B1.
C. B2.
D. A.



Question 32. Which of these designs is used to estimate the prevalence of
Osteoporosis?
A. Factorial.
B. Quasi experimental.
C. Cross sectional.
D. Cross over.



Question 33. A blue print for the conduction of study is?
A. Pilot study.
B. Data collection tool.
C. Research hypothesis.
D. Research design.



Question 34. Which of these is A sign of previous child birth?
A. Rigid abdominal wall.
B. Gaping introitus.
C. Round external OS.
D. Ovoid uterus.



Question 35. Which of these is considered as dangerous placenta previa?
A. Type 1 posterior.
B. Type 2 posterior.
C. Type 1 anterior.
D. Type 2 anterior.



Question 36. A late complication of molar pregnancy?
A. Uterine perforation.
B. Choriocarcinoma.
C. Shock.
D. Coagulation failure.



Question 37. Ideal time for tubectomy following menstruation?
A. Ovulatory phase.
B. Proliferative phase.
C. Secretory phase.
D. Menstrual phase.




Question 38. In which type of abortion fetus dead and retained inside the uterus for a
variable period?
A. Missed.
B. Threatened.
C. Inevitable.
D. Incomplete.



Question 39. Which of these is A galactopoietic hormone?
A. Oxytocin.
B. Prolactin.
C. Progesterone.
D. Estrogen.



Question 40. After birth the umbilical vein collapses and forms?
A. Ligamentum arteriosum.
B. Ligamentum venosum.
C. Ligamentum umbilicus.
D. Ligamentum teres.



Question 41. Which of the following is an alarming sign of pre-eclampsia?
A. +2 proteinuria.
B. Blood pressure 150/90.
C. +2 grade edema.
D. +4 deep tendon reflexes.



Question 42. Which drug is contraindicated in a laboring mother with hypertension?
A. Prostaglandins.
B. Oxytocin.
C. Methergine.
D. Magnesium sulphate.




Question 43. An amniotic fluid index less then 5cm indicates?
A. Anhydramnios.
B. Hydramnios.
C. Oligohydramnios.
D. Polyhydramnios.



Question 44. The third stage of labour ends with?
A. Two hours after birth of baby.
B. Birth of baby.
C. Delivery of placenta.
D. Fully cervical dilatation.



Question 45. Most common type of shock in trauma patients?
A. Hypovolemic shock.
B. Electric shock.
C. Allergic shock.
D. None of the above.



Question 46. Spinal medicine is given at which number of spine?
A. L1 to L2.
B. L4 to L5.
C. L5 to T1.
D. C6 to L2.
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Question 47. The vaccine against polio was developed by?
A. Salk.
B. Edward Jenner.
C. Louis Pasteur.
D. Fleming. Salk.




Question 48. New growth in the bone marrow is?
A. Myoma.
B. Osteoma.
C. Odontoma.
D. Myeloma.



Question 49. How many positions are seen in breech presentation?
A. 6.
B. 8.
C. 2.
D. 4.



Question 50. Herpes Zoster is A common Disease caused by?
A. Unhygienic skin conditions.
B. Viral infection.
C. Nerve disease.
D. Blood disorder.

 
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Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 16 with Answer

Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 16 with Answer

Staff nurse exam Modal Paper is Useful for nursing students who prepare for staff nurse Recruitment exam

like AIIMS,JIPMER,PGIMER,GMCH,DSSSB,RRB,RUHS,BHU,AMU,SCTIMST,KPSC,RPSC,HPSSSB,HSSC,IGNOU ESIC and All other Staff nurse exam .you can download this question paper in pdf format link given at the end of paper.





Q.1. Which is the overall, priority goal of inpatient psychiatric treatment?
A. Maintenance of stability in the community
B. Medication compliance
C. Stabilization and return to the community
D. Better communication skill



Q.2. Which one of the following is an antioxidant?
A. Calcium
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin B
D. Vitamin A



Q.3. What element of the communication process summarizes the conversation with
the patient and ensures the patients’ understanding?
A. Referent
B. Channel
C. Environment
D. Feed back
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Q.4. The best approach to facilitate communication with the patient with bilateral
hearing loss, wearing an aid in her left ear -
A. Speak directly into the patient’s left air
B. Speak from behind
C. Face the patient, speak slower in normal volume
D. Face the patient and speak louder



Q.5. Segregation of hospital waste is done -
A. At the source of generation
B. While transporting the waste
C. At the level of municipality disposal
D. While burning the waste



Q.6. SARS is a -
A. Bacterial infection
B. Viral infection
C. Fungal infection
D. Parasitic infection
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Q.7. “Plumbism” refers to -
A. Mercury poisoning
B. Lead poisoning
C. Arsenic poisoning
D. Asbestos poisoning



Q.8. Application of the drug to the skin -
A. Inhalation
B. Insertion
C. Instillation
D. Inunction



Q.9. The angle of insertion for intramuscular injection is ……degrees -
A. 15
B. 30
C. 45
D. 90



Q.10. Which of the following position the nurse places the client when the epidural
regional block is administered?
A. Lithotomy
B. Supine
C. Prone
D. Lateral



Q.11. The placenta should be delivered within how many minutes after the delivery
of the baby?
A. 25 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 35 minutes
D. 60 minutes



Q.12. In a lady having a regular 28 day menstrual cycle, what is the safe period?
A. Initial 28 days
B. Later 14 days
C. First and last 7 days
D. First 7 days only



Q.13. Pregnant women should be immunized for -
A. Hepatitis vaccine
B. TT vaccine
C. MMR vaccine
D. BCG vaccine
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Q.14. Professional negligence is legally termed as -
A. Crime
B. Assault
C. Malpractice
D. Slander



Q.15. A drug commonly used to dilate the pupil of the eye is called ?
A. Miotic
B. Mydriatic
C. Cycloplegic
D. None of the above.



Q.16. Exclusive breast feeding is for -
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 8 months
D. 1 year



Q.17. The most common cause of urinary retention in women is -
A. Urethral stricture
B. Spinal cord injury
C. Cystocele
D. Detrusor failure



Q.18. The needle used for liver biopsy is -
A. Tru–cut biopsy needle
B. Scalp vein needle
C. Vim-Silverman needle
D. Jamshidi needle



Q.19. How often should a tracheostomy tube be changed –
A. 1-2 weeks
B. 2-3 weeks
C. 3-4 weeks
D. 3-4 days
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Q. 20. Sodium restricted diet is indicated for clients with -
A. Congestive cardiac failure
B. Burns
C. Pre-eclampsia
D. Cholelithiasis




Q. 21 Identify Below Given Image Name?














A. Nebulizer Machine
B. Nebulizer Mask
C. Steam Inhaler
D. None of these




Q. 22 Which of the following is not considered as Metaparadigm of nursing?
A. Person
B. Environment
C. Nursing
D. Diagnosis
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Q. 23 Which of the following is considered as a example of intentional tort?
A. Malpractice
B. Negligence
C. Breach of duly
D. False imprisonment
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Q. 24 Which of the following clinical findings indicates that the patient is
experiencing hypokalemia?
A. Edema
B. Muscle spasms
C. Kussaumal breathing
D. Abdominal distention




Q. 25 A Patient is wearing a soft wrist-safety device. Which of the following nursing
assessment is considered abnormal?
A. Palpable radical pulse
B. Palpable ulnar pulse
C. Capillary refill within 3 seconds
D. Bluish fingernails, cool and pale finger




Q. 26 The nurse is instructing a group of volunteer nurses on the technique of
administering the BCG vaccine. What method should the nurse teach the group to
administer the vaccine correctly?
A. Z-track injection
B. Intravenous injection
C. Subcutaneous injection
D. Intradermal scratch injection
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Q. 27 A client is to receive 2000 ml of I.V. fluids in 12 hours. The drop factor is 10
gtt/ml. At how many drops per minute should the flow rate be set?
A. 22 drops/min
B. 24 drops/min
C. 26 drops/min
D. 28 drops/min



Q. 28 Tube feeding should be delayed if the amount of gastric content exceeds
A. 20 ml
B. 25 ml
C. 30 ml
D. 50 ml



Q. 29 In the absence of pathology, client respiratory center is stimulated by
A. Oxygen
B. Lactic acid
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Calcium ion




Q. 30 In Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), what kind of immunity is lost?
A. Active immunity
B. Passive immunity
C. Humoral immunity
D. Cellular immunity
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Q. 31 Which one of the chronic conditions contraindicates the use of ice on sprained
ankle?
A. Gastritis
B. Diabetes
C. Glaucoma
D. Osteoporosis



Q. 32 Thoracentesis is useful in treating all pulmonary disorders, except:
A. Hemothorax
B. Tuberculosis
C. Hydrothorax
D. Empyema



Q. 33 Absence of an informed consent while performing a procedure on patient can
lead to which of the following charges?
A. Fraud
B. Assault and battery
C. Harassment
D. Breach of confidentiality



Q. 34 Process of formal negotiations on working conditions between a group of nurses
and employer is-
A. Grievance
B. Arbitration
C. Collective bargaining
D. Strike



Q. 35 Allen’s test checks the patency of the
A. Ulnar artery
B. Radial artery
C. Carotid artery
D. Brachial artery
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Q. 36 Needle Stick Safety and Prevention Act was passed in
A. November, 2000
B. December, 1998
C. November, 2002
D. April, 2010




Q. 37 What instructions should be given to the client before undergoing a
paracentaisis?
A. NPO 12 hrs before procedure
B. Empty bladder before procedure
C. Strict bed rest following procedure
D. Empty bowel before procedure




Q. 38 Application of force to another person without lawful justification is-
A. Battery
B. Negligence
C. Tort
D. Crime



Q. 39 Colour coding for nitrous oxide cylinder is –
A. Black
B. Black with white shoulder
C. French Blue
D. Gray



Q. 40 Principle of good mechanics includes –
A. Keeping the knees in locked position
B. Maintaining the wide base of support and bending at the knee
C. Bending at the waist to maintain a centre of gravity
D. Holding objects away from the body for improved leverage
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Q. 41 Control of spread of disease is an example of which level of prevention?
A. Primary intervention
B. Secondary intervention
C. Tertiary intervention
D. Nursing intervention



Q. 42 A client with multiple trauma is admitted in ortho unit. The client has a leg
fracture and had plaster cast applied. The best position of casted leg is:-
A. Elevated leg for 3 hours and keep the leg at level for half an hour
B. Elevated leg for 6 hour put in flat position for one hour
C. Elevated leg continued for 24-48 hours
D. Keep the leg in a level position




Q. 43 A nurse is evaluating the status of the client who had craniotomy 3 days ago.
The nurse would suspect that the client is developing meningitis as a complication of
surgery if the client exhibits
A. A negative kerning sign
B. Absence of nuccal rigidity
C. A positive bruzinski sign
D. A Glasgow coma scale score




Q. 44 The client is diagnosed with disorder involving the inner ear. Which of the
following is the most common complaint associated with a disorder involving this
part of the ear?
A. Pruritus
B. Tinnitus
C. Hearing loss
D. Burning in the ear
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Q. 45 Morphine is contraindicated in
A. Angina
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Pancreatitis
D. Myocardial infarction



Q. 46 Objectives for treating diabetic ketoacidosis includes administration of which
of the following treatments?
A. Glucagon
B. Blood product
C. Glucocorticoids
D. Insulin and I.V. fluid



Q. 47 A client with Myocardial infarction suddenly becomes tachycardiac, shows
signs of air hunger and begins coughing frothy, pink tinged sputum. Which of the
following would the nurse anticipate when auscultation the client’s breathing
sounds?
A. Stridor
B. Crackles
C. Scattered rhonchi
D. Diminished breath
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Q. 48 A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client with pulmonary sarcoidosis.
The nurse concludes that the client understands the information if the client reports
which of the following early signs of exacerbation?
A. Fever
B. Fatigue
C. Wight loss
D. Shortness of breath



Q. 49 A client has experienced pulmonary embolism. A nurse must assess most
commonly reported symptom-
A. Hot, flushed feeling
B. Sudden chills and fever
C. Chest pain that occurs suddenly
D. Dysponea when deep breaths are taken




Q. 50 A nurse is suctioning fluids from client via a tracheostomy tube. When
suctioning, the nurse must limit the suctioning time to a maximum of -
A. 1 minute
B. 5 seconds
C. 10 seconds
D. 3 seconds


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