Labour Welfare Organisation Staff Nurse & Paramedical Vacancy 2018 Apply Now

Labour Welfare Organisation Staff Nurse & Paramedical Vacancy 2018 Apply Now 


Application are invited from the eligible Candidates for filling up of the following vacant posts Available under Labour welfare organization, Bhubaneswar Region, Bhubaneswar, Odisha. Labour Welfare Organisation Staff Nurse & Paramedical Vacancy 2018 Details Like Name of Post, No of Post, Age Limit, Pay Scale, Qualifications, Application Mode, & Last Date of Application are Given Below - 







➧Labour Welfare Organisation Staff Nurse & Paramedical Vacancy 2018 Details - 

Name & No of Post - 

  • Staff Nurse  -                       03 Post
  • Pharmacist  -                      04 Post
  • X-Ray Technician -           01 Post 
  • Laboratory Technician - 01 Post 
  • Driver -                                 02 Post 





➧Labour Welfare Organisation Staff Nurse  Vacancy 2018 Details - 


Name of Post -     Staff Nurse


No of Post -          03 Post


Age Limit -           18 to 25 years as on closing date of the receipt of Applications. [ Relaxable for SC/ST/OBC Candidates in accordance with the instructions issued by the Deptt. of Personnel & Training from time to time in this regard]


Pay Scale -            Level - 7 [ 7th CPC]


Qualifications - 

 Essential - 
1. 12th Passed or equivalent from a recognized Board or University.

2. Registered A Grade Nurse and Midwife.

Desirable - 

One year experience



Application Mode -  OFFLINE


Application Send To - 

Labour Welfare Organisation,
IRC Village, Bhubaneswar- 751015


Last Date of Application -       7 May 2018 



How to Apply - 


 Applications in the prescribed format [Given below], duly filled in [Hindi or English] and completed in all respect, supported with self attested photocopies of educational qualifications with mark sheets, certificate of  experience and caste certificate [ in case of reserved category] issued by the competent authority, Should reach this office within 30 days from the date of publication of this advertisement in the Employment News. The Envelope containing the application must be superscribed as " Application for the post of [Post applied for] " should be sent through Regd. Post/speed Post/Courier Post only this office.


➧For More Details & Information About Vacancy Download Official Vacancy Notification Given Below Or Visit Official Website Here- http://wccbbsr.gov.in

⏬Download Notification  CLICK HERE







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Regional Cancer Centre, Thiruvananthapuram Staff Nurse Vacancy 2018 Apply Now

Regional Cancer Centre, Thiruvananthapuram Staff Nurse Vacancy 2018 Apply Now

Online applications are invited for the post of Staff Nurse in Regional Cancer Centre, Thiruvananthapuram on regular basis in the pay band of Rs.9300-34800 with Grade Pay Rs.4600/- No of vacancies : 24 + Anticipated. Regional Cancer Centre, Thiruvananthapuram Staff Nurse Vacancy 2018 Details Like Name of post, No of  post, Age Limit, Pay Scale, Qualifications, Application Mode, Application fees, and Last Date of  Application are Given Below - 




➧Regional Cancer Centre, Thiruvananthapuram Staff Nurse Vacancy 2018 Details - 

Name & No of Post - 


  • Staff Nurse  -   24 Post 



➧Regional Cancer Centre, Thiruvananthapuram Staff Nurse Vacancy 2018 Details - 


Job Location -      Regional Cancer Centre, Thiruvananthapuram


Name of Post -     Staff Nurse


No of Post -            24 + Anticipated


Age Limit  -           35 years as on 01/01/2018


Pay Scale  -          Pay band of Rs.9300-34800 with Grade Pay Rs.4600/-


Qualifications  - 


Essential: 
1. Plus two or its equivalent

2. Diploma in General Nursing and Midwifery with two years experience in bed-side Nursing.
 OR
BSc Nursing

3. Valid Registration with Kerala Nurses and Midwives Council

Desirable: Diploma in Oncology Nursing


Application Mode  -       ONLINE 


Application Fees -            Rs.750/-  Rs.500/- for SC/ST candidates


Mode of Payment:-  Demand Draft drawn in favour of the Director, LBS Centre for Science & Technology payable at Thiruvananthapuram.(The application fee will not be refunded under any circumstances)

Opening date for Online submission of Application - 10/04/2018 


Closing date of Online submission of application  -    04/05/2018 


Last date for receipt of hard copy(print out)of computer generated application along with DD at LBS Centre, Thiruvananthapuram   -                07/05/2018


➧Selection Process -
1. Online Admit card will be issued to all eligible candidates who have submitted their application through online with the required documents.


2. The written test consists of 80 objective type multiple choice questions to be answered in 75 minutes (OMR valuation).

3. Admission to written test/skill test is purely provisional and will not confer any claim unless the conditions in the notifications are satisfied. Even if a candidate is permitted to appear for written test and qualified for skill test, later found to be not meeting the qualification or criteria mentioned, he/she will not be considered for selection.

4. In case if it is detected at any stage that a candidate does not fulfill the eligibility norms and/or that he/she has furnished any incorrect/false information/certificate/documents or has suppressed any material fact(s), his/her candidature will stand cancelled. If any of these shortcomings is/are detected even after appointment, his/her service is liable to be terminated. The decision of RCC Director will be final in this regard.

5. Candidates shortlisted in the written test will have to appear for a skill test.

6. Rank list will be published only on the basis of the total marks secured by the candidate both in the written test and in the skill test.



➧Syllabus for the examination.-  Questions will be based on Medical Surgical Nursing, Oncology Nursing, Fundamentals of Nursing, Child Health Nursing, Psychology and Community Health Nursing.



➧Important Note -


a. Fill the application form completely online.

b. Experience wherever prescribed means experience gained after acquiring registration with the Nurses Council concerned.

c. A candidate shall not submit more than one application.

d. After online submission of the application, request for change/correction in the computer generated application form shall not be entertained under any circumstances.


e. LBS Centre will not be responsible for any postal delay or loss in transmission/transit of hardcopy of the computer generated application. Candidates should retain photocopies of the DD and computer generated application form for their own records and future reference.

f. A candidate’s admission to the Test/Interview is strictly provisional. The mere fact that the call letter has been issued to the candidate does not imply that his/her candidature has been finally accepted.

g. In case it is detected at any stage that a candidate does not fulfill the eligibility norms and/or that he/she has furnished any incorrect/false information/ certificate/documents or has suppressed any material fact(s), his/her candidature will be cancelled.

h. Communal rotation as followed by the Kerala Public Service Commission will be observed in the selection.

i. The envelope containing application should be superscribed as “APPLICATION FOR THE POST OF STAFF NURSE-Regional Cancer Centre”.

j. Signed hard copy of the online application, downloaded from website, along with Demand Draft as application fee should be forwarded to
The Deputy Director-EDP, 
LBS Centre for Science & Technology, Palayam, 
Thiruvananthapuram-695033 
without fail, so as to reach on or before 07/05/2018 till 4 PM. Self attested copy of Caste certificate/Community certificate and Non creamy layer certificate(valid on the date of application) from Thahsildar/Village Officer for candidates claiming reservation status and Self attested copy of relevant certificate(mentioned in clause 2) for candidates claiming age relaxation should be submitted along with the application , if applicable. A copy of application may be retained by the candidate for future reference. Certificates to prove qualifications and experience need not be submitted along with the application. Registration ID number obtained after submitting online application shall be quoted for all future correspondence/enquiries.

k. Applications without signature of the candidate will not be considered and will be rejected.

l. Applications will not be considered after the last date of submission.

m. The applications that are not complete in all respect will not be considered.

n. Age will be calculated as on 1st January 2018.


o. No TA/DA will be paid for attending the interview/written test p. For communications of skill test call letter will be sent by post.

q. Canvassing in any form will lead to automatic disqualification. Candidates are advised to desist from such practices.

r. The Director RCC will hold the right to reject any application without any notice.

s. Candidates are advised to visit LBS website www.lbskerala.com/www.lbscentre.org regularly for notice/announcements.




➧For More Details & Informations About Vacancy Download Official Vacancy Notification Given Below OR Visit Official Website here - www.lbskerala.com/www.lbscentre.org



⏬Download Notification  CLICK HERE
⏬APPLY ONLINE  CLICK HERE





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Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 18 with Answer

Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 18 with Answer
Staff nurse exam Modal Paper is Useful for nursing students who prepare for staff nurse Recruitment exam
like AIIMS,JIPMER,PGIMER,GMCH,DSSSB,RRB,RUHS,BHU,AMU,SCTIMST,KPSC,RPSC,HPSSSB,HSSC,IGNOU ESIC and All other Staff nurse exam .you can download this question paper in pdf format link given at the end of paper.






➧Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 18 with Answer


  •     [Total Questions - 50 with Answers]


Q. 01 A nurse instructs a client to use the pursed-lip method of breathing. Purpose ofthis pursed-lip breathing is to-
A. Promote oxygen intake
B. Strengthen the diaphragm
C. Strengthen the intercostal muscles
D. Promote carbon dioxide elimination



Q. 02 An emergency department nurse is assessing a client who has sustained a blunt injury to the chest wall. Which of the signs would Indicate the presence of pneumothorax in this client?
A. A low respiratory rate
B. Diminished breath sound
C. The presence of a barrel chest
D. A sucking sound at the site of injury





Q. 03 The client with hiatal hernia chronically experiences heartburn following meals.The Nurse plans to teach the client to avoid which action, because it is contraindicated with a hiatal hernia?
A. Lying recumbent following meal
B. Taking in small, frequent, bland diet
C. Raising the head of bed on 6 inch blocks
D. Taking h2-receptor antagonist medication


Q. 04 The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of chronic gastritis. The nurse monitors the client knowing that this client is a risk for which vitamin deficiency?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin E


Q. 05 The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing an acute episode of cholecystitis. Where should the nurse anticipate the location of the pain?
A. Right lower quadrant radiating to neck
B. Right lower quadrant radiating to umbilicus
C. Right upper quadrant radiating to left scapula and shoulder
D. Right upper quadrant radiating to right scapula and shoulder




Q. 06 Which type of catheter is generally used for the client with urine retention?
A. Coude
B. Indwelling
C. Straight
D. Three way
www.prncfet.com





Q. 07 Negri bodies found in hippocampus ae the diagnostic signs of
A. Rabies
B. Measles
C. Rubella
D. Diphtheria


Q. 08 What is Odynophagia?
A. Difficulty in swallowing
B. Pain during swallowing
C. Unable to swallow
D. Regurgitation


Q. 09 Signs of pulmonary consolidation are all except
A. Dullness
B. Increased fremitus
C. Egophny
D. Cystic fibrosis




Q. 10 Which of the following is not a investigation for dysphagia?
A. Barium swallows
B. Endoscopy
C. Manometry
D. Colonoscopy 
www.prncfet.com


Q. 11 Which of the following signs and symptoms would represent an earlymanifestation of Laryngeal cancer?
A. Stomatitis
B. Air way obstruction
C. Hoarseness
D. Dysphasia


Q. 12 The process that transmits impulses towards the cell body is -
A. Axon
B. Myelin
C. Cell body
D. Dendrites


Q. 13 Circumstantiality is a disorder of-
A. Mood
B. Affect
C. Behavior
D. Thinking




Q. 14 Delusion is a disorder of-
A. Thought
B. Cognition
C. Perception
D. Insight
www.prncfet.com


Q. 15 Withdrawal of the child into self and into a fantasy world of his or her own creation is -A. Mental retardation
B. Conduct disorder
C. Autistic disorder
D. ADHD




Q. 16 Pavlov’s experiments is an example of -
A. Classical conditioning
B. Modelling
C. Learned helplessness
D. Operant conditioning
Q. 17 Drug of choice for treatment of alcohol withdrawal is
A. Diazepam
B. Phenelzine
C. Amitriptyline
D. Sodium valproate



Q. 18 Which drug is CNS stimulant?
A. Cocaine
B. Chlordiazepoxide
C. Phenobarbital
D. Meperidine

Q. 19 Social skill training becomes one of the most widely used psychosocial interventions in the treatment of
A. Mania
B. Eating disorder
C. Delirium
D. Schizophrenia

Q. 20 Extreme salivation is the side effect of
A. Alprazolam
B. Duloxetine
C. Isocarbaxazid
D. Clozapine
www.prncfet.com

Q. 21 Disturbance of consciousness and change in cognition that develops rapidly over a short period is -
A. Delirium
B. Dementia
C. Delusion
D. Illusion



Q. 22 Nurse’s ability to be open, honest and real in interaction with client is called -
A. Empathy
B. Warmth
C. Genuineness
D. Respect

Q. 23 The junction between two Neurons is called -
A. Synapse
B. Presynaptic neurone
C. Synaptic cleft
D. Dendrites

Q. 24 Delusion of nihilism and early morning insomnia are characteristic features of
A. Major depression
B. Mania
C. Schizophrenia
D. Personality disorders potential

Q. 25 In Freudian theory, Oedipus complex is seen in which stage of psychosexual development -
A. Anal
B. Genital
C. Phallic
D. Latency
www.prncfet.com



Q. 26 Purpose of therapeutic communication is to -
A. Develop a friendly social relationship with the patient
B. Develop parental authoritarian relationship with the patient
C. Develop a helping, purposeful relationship with the patient
D. Develop cool business like relationship with the patient

Q. 27 The defense mechanism most frequently demonstrated by the chemically dependent person is -
A. Undoing
B. Denial
C. Rationalization
D. Reaction formation

Q. 28 False perception without external stimulus is -
A. Illusion
B. Delirium
C. Hallucination
D. Delusion



Q. 29 Phobia is -
A. Psychosis
B. Anxiety
C. Fear of animal
D. Neurosis

Q. 30 Persistently repeats what another person says is called-
A. Obsession
B. Echopraxia
C. Echolalia
D. Clang association

Q. 31 Patient with obsessive compulsive disorder is -
A. Suspicious and hostile
B. Flexible and adaptable to change
C. Extremely frightened of something
D. Rigid in thoughts, inflexible with routine and rituals

Q. 32 Neisseria gonococcus is the common organism for -
A. Viral conjunctivitis
B. Allergic
C. Bacterial
D. Ophthalmia neonatorum
www.prncfet.com 

Q. 33 Bone age is less than chronological age is the characteristic of -
A. Familial short stature
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hypopituitarism
D. Both (b) and (c)



Q. 34 Progressive enlargement of lymph node is seen in -
A. Scurvy
B. ITP
C. Hemophilia
D. Hodgkin’s disease



Q. 35 Wilms tumor is related to which organ of the body -
A. Stomach
B. Kidney
C. Liver
D. Heart

Q. 36 Children with Tetralogy of Fallot use which of the following positions?
A. Supine
B. Lateral
C. Prone
D. Squatting

Q. 37 Rule of Ten is used for -
A. Cleft lip
B. TEF
C. Imperforate anus
D. CHD

Q. 38 Clinical manifestation of cystic fibrosis includes all except -
A. Corpulmonale
B. Bronchiectasis
C. Malabsorption
D. Hypertension

Q. 39 The normal calorie requirement for a 5-year old child is -
A. 800 calories
B. 1000 calories
C. 1500 calories
D. 2000 calorie
www.prncfet.com

Q. 40 Child born to diabetic mother can have -
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Mental retardation
D. All the above

Q. 41 Commonest cause of neonatal death in India is -
A. Prematurity
B. Congenital malformation
C. Metabolic disease
D. Birth injury



Q. 42 Human milk contains sugar per 100 ml -
A. 7 gm
B. 5 gm
C. 4 gm
D. 9 gm

Q. 43 Moniliasis is caused by –
A. Fungus Candida albican
B. Bacteria
C. Pneumococci
D. None of the above

Q. 44 Number of deciduous teeth -
A. 20
B. 24
C. 28
D. 32
www.prncfet.com

Q. 45 Antidote of acetaminophen poisoning is -
A. Frusemide
B. Ampicillin
C. Acetylcysteine
D. Ethyknediominetetra acetic acid (EDTA)

Q. 46 In a child, cessation of breathing for 20 seconds with bradycardia is -
A. Apnea
B. Dyspnoea
C. Seizures
D. Cheyne stokes respiration



Q. 47 You observe that a neonate has cyanotic feet and hands within 12 hours afterbirth. What action should you take?
A. Notify the physician
B. Prepare to administer supplemental O2
C. Make sure that the neonate is warm enough and continue observing him
D. Apply warm compression hand and feet
www.prncfet.com

Q. 48 Which vitamin must be taken with iron when child is diagnosed with irondeficiency anemia?
A. Folic acid
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Niacin
D. Riboflavin

Q. 49 Head control is possible in an infant at -
A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. 5 months
D. 10 months

Q. 50 The complications of chickenpox are all except-
A. Meningitis
B. Enteritis
C. Pneumonia
D. Rey’s syndrome






⏬Download Question Paper Answer Keys  CLICK HERE


➧If You Want To Download This Question Paper Pdf . You Can Download This Paper Pdf .Download Link are Given Below click Below Given Link to Download Now -



⏬Download Question Paper As Pdf  CLICK HERE
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