Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 24 with Answer

Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 24 with Answer


Staff nurse exam Modal Paper is Useful for nursing students who prepare for staff nurse Recruitment exam

like AIIMS,JIPMER,PGIMER,GMCH,DSSSB,RRB,RUHS,BHU,AMU,SCTIMST,KPSC,RPSC,HPSSSB,HSSC,IGNOU ESIC and All other Staff nurse exam .you can download this question paper in pdf format link given at the end of paper.









➧Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 24 with Answer---





Q. 01 To prevent foot drop in a patient with Buck's Traction, the Nurse should ___?
A. Ensure proper body positioning
B. Teach the client isometric exercises
C. Place pillows under the client's heals
D. Tuck the sheets into foot of the bed
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Q. 02 A comatose patient is at risk for the development of pressure Ulcers, Therefore
the nurse should include which of the following activity in the plan of care.?
A. Wash skin with soap and water frequently
B. Establish an individualized turning schedule
C. Use donut-shaped cushion on the sacral region
D. Massage red areas on bony prominences regularly


Q. 03 A Nurse is teaching a new hemodialysis patient. Hemodialysis is successful in
the treatment of ESRD. Because it __?
A. Restores renal endocrine function
B. Mimics renal function
C. Restores urinary ability
D. Improves immune function


Q. 04 Using the Rule of Nine, the Nurse determines the percentage of the body burnt,
a client with both arms burnt to be __?
A. 1%
B. 9%
C. 18%
D. 36%


Q. 05 Which intervention is appropriate for a patient with skeletal traction?
A. Pin care
B. Intermittent weights
C. Prone positioning
D. 5 lb weight limit


Q. 06 A patient has undergone an endoscopy of the upper GI tract. The Nursing care
plan should include which of the following.?
A. Administering analgesics for pain
B. Observing the client for rectal bleeding
C. Withholding foods until a gag reflex is present
D. Positioning the client on the right side



Q. 07 Nursing care for a patient with an arteriovenous (AV) Fistula aimed at
maintaining patency Includes.?
A. Taking BP in the affected area
B. Palpating for a bruit
C. Keeping the arm free of constriction
D. Applying heat to maintain circulation


Q. 08 A Nurse is assigned to care of group of clients. On the review of the client
Medical records the nurse determines that which client is at risk for fluid volume
excess.?
A. The client on diuretics
B. The client with ileostomy
C. The client on GI suctioning
D. The client with renal failure
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Q. 09 A Nurse plans care for client with COPD knowing that the client is most likely
to experience what type of acid base balance.?
A. Respiratory Acidosis
B. Metabolic Acidosis
C. Respiratory Alkalosis
D. Metabolic Alkalosis



Q. 10 Which of the following arterial blood gas values is consistent with metabolic
acidosis.?
A. Bicarbonate 16 mEq/L
B. PaCO2 48 mm of Hg
C. PH 7.35
D. SpO2 90%


Q. 11 After 48 hours, Successful fluid resuscitation of a burn victim can be evaluated
by __?
A. Weight
B. Urine Output
C. Urine specific gravity
D. Peripheral perfusion


Q. 12 An end stage AIDS Client required suctioning when performing this task the
nurse is correct to wear.?
A. A mask and eye protection
B. Sterile gloves and eye protection
C. A mask and sterile gloves
D. A mask, eye protection and sterile gloves



Q. 13 A Nurse is caring for client who has been taking diuretics on long term basis. A
fluid volume deficit is suspected. Which assessment finding would be noted in a client
with this condition.?
A. Rales
B. CVP
C. BP
D. Hematocrit
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Q. 14 The most common cause of retinal detachment is ___?
A. Trauma
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Brain tumor
D. Degenerative changes in the retina and vitreous



Q. 15 A client with cancer is receiving chemotherapy and develops thrombocytopenia.
A Nurse identifies which intervention as the highest priority in the Nursing care
plan.?
A. Ambulation three times daily
B. Monitoring for pathological fractures
C. Monitoring the platelet count
D. Monitoring temperature



Q. 16 To which collaborative health care team member should the nurse refer the
client the late stages of Myasthenia Gravis.?
A. Occupational therapist
B. Vocational Therapist
C. Speech Therapist
D. Recreational Therapist



Q. 17 A Nurse is preparing to care for parent with a potassium (K) deficit the nurse
reviews the patient's record and determines that the client is at risk for developing the
K deficit because of the client.?
A. Is on K sparing diuretics
B. Is on Nasogastric suction
C. Has history of Addison's disease
D. Has history of renal disease


Q. 18 A Nurse is changing the central line dressing of a patient receiving TPN. She
notes that the catheter insertion site appears reddened. The nurse next assesses which
of the following.?
A. Expiration date on the bag
B. Tightness of tubing connections
C. Clients temperature
D. Time of the last dressing change
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Q. 19 The nurse is preparing to hang fat emulsion. The nurse notes that fat globules
are visible at the top of the solution. The nurse takes which of the following Actions.?
A. Roll the bottle of solution vigorously
B. Obtains a different bottle of solution
C. Shakes the bottle of solution gently
D. Runs the bottle of solution under warm water



Q. 20 A patient has just undergone insertion of Central Venous Catheter at the
bedside. A Nurse would be sure to check the results of which of the following before
increasing the flow rate of the IV solution attached to the line.?
A. Serum electrolyte
B. Portable Chest X-Ray
C. Serum Osmolality
D. Intake Output Chart



Q. 21 A Nurse is Assisting a physician with the removal of chest tube. The nurse most
appropriately instructs the patient to ___?
A. Stay very still
B. Inhale and Exhale Quickly
C. Perform Valsalva Maneuver
D. Exhale as the tube is pulled out
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Q. 22 A Nurse is caring for a patient who goes into ventricular tachycardia. Which
should the nurse implement first.?
A. Call a code immediately
B. Begin chest compressions
C. Assess the pulse of a patient
D. Continue to monitor the client



Q. 23 Which Laboratory data confirms the diagnosis of congestive heart failure.?
A. Chest X-Ray
B. Beta Type Natriuretic peptide (BNP)
C. LFT
D. BUN


Q. 24 Which Assessment data would the nurse assess in the client diagnosed with
Gullian Barre syndrome.?
A. Cogwheel rigidity and inability to initiate voluntary movement
B. An exaggerated starle reflex and memory changes
C. Progressive ascending paralysis of the lower extremities and numbness
D. Sudden severe unilateral facial pain and inability to chew


Q. 25 The patient comes to the clinic and is diagnosed with otitis media. Which
intervention should the clinic Nurse include in the discharge teaching.?
A. Encourage the client to Apply cold packs to the affected ear
B. Instruct the client not to take any over the counter pain medication
C. Wear a protective earplug in affected ear
D. Tell the client to call the HCP if an abrupt relief of ear pain occurs


Q. 26 The patient is Diagnosed with Glaucoma. Which symptom would the nurse
Expect the client to report.?
A. A yellow haze around everything
B. Halos around lights
C. A curtain coming across vision
D. Floating spots in the vision
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Q. 27 Which referral would be most important for the client with permanent hearing
loss.?
A. Aural rehabilitation
B. Speech Therapist
C. Social worker
D. Vocational rehabilitation


Q. 28 The nurse find the patient unresponsive on the floor on bathroom. Which action
should the nurse implement first.?
A. Check the client for breathing
B. Shake the client and shout
C. Assess the carotid artery for pulse
D. Call a code via the bathroom call light


Q. 29 The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with COPD. Which data would
warrant immediate intervention by the Nurse.?
A. The patient's pulse oximeter reading is 92%
B. The patients arterial blood gas level is 74
C. The patient's sputum is rusty colored
D. The patient has SOB when walking to the bathroom


Q. 30 Which type of precaution should the nurse implement to protect from being
exposed to any of the hepatitis viruses.?
A. Airborne precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Standard precautions
D. Exposure precautions
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Q. 31 What is the priority problem in the client diagnosed with congestive heart
failure.?
A. Fluid volume overload
B. Decreased cardiac output
C. Knowledge deficit
D. Activity intolerance


Q. 32 Which type of precautions should the nurse implement for the patient diagnosed
with septic meningitis.?
A. Contact precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Airborne precautions
D. Standard precautions
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Q. 33 The patient diagnosed with atrial fibrillation has experienced a transient
ischemic attack (TIA). Which medication would the nurse anticipated being ordered
for the patient on discharge.?
A. A. Beta blocker medication
B. An oral anticoagulant medication
C. A thrombolytic medication
D. An anti hyperuricemic medication


Q. 34 A patient diagnosed with a subarachnoid hemorrhage has undergone a
craniotomy for repair of a ruptured aneurysm. Which intervention will the intensive
care Nurse implement.?
A. Administer a stool softener BID
B. Monitor neurological status every shift
C. Encourage the client to cough hourly
D. Maintain the dopamine drip to keep BP at 160/90


Q. 35 Which medication should the nurse Expect the health care provider to order for
a patient diagnosed with arterial occlusive disease.?
A. An anti coagulant medication
B. An anti platelet medication
C. A muscle relaxant
D. An antihypertensive medication

Q. 36 The following methods can be used to identify training needs EXCEPT ___
A. Professional standards
B. Job Description
C. Employee surveys
D. Job analysis
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Q. 37 Which of the following data indicates whether high quality care is being
maintained.?
A. Audit
B. Quality indicators
C. Key indicators
D. Quality assurances


Q. 38 Which type of patient’s assignment needs specific personnel.?
A. Patient method
B. Team method
C. Functional method
D. None of these


Q. 39 Which of the following is the process by which the manager assigns specific
duties.?
A. Coordination
B. Delegation
C. Supervision
D. Communteation
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Q. 40 Functional Nursing is a method of providing.?
A. Equipment care
B. Patient care
C. Case management
D. Care of records


Q. 41 Which of the following is the most managerial issue in emergency case.?
A. Inadequate Staff
B. Security
C. Triage
D. Inadequate supply


Q. 42 Supervisors have several roles to play. Which of the following is not among the
roles a supervisor plays.?
A. Coach to employees
B. Informing employees regarding organizational policies
C. Authoritative
D. Mentor to employees
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Q. 43 What could be a factor that hinders the smooth running of the team process.?
A. An effective team leader
B. Objectives that are easily achievable
C. Everyone focused on the project
D. Team member having problems


Q. 44 Postpartum hemorrhage is loss of blood which is more than ___?
A. 900 ml
B. 500 ml
C. 800 ml
D. 100 ml


Q. 45 In fetal blood vessels, where is the oxygen content highest.?
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Ductus Arteriosus
C. Ductus Venous
D. Umbilical Artery
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Q. 46 The type of hospital patient care assignment which requires giving complete
Nursing care to a specific number and category of patient during the scheduled duty
hours.?
A. Functional assignment
B. Organizational Nursing
C. Team Nursing
D. Individual care assignment


Q. 47 The type of Nursing care assignment is best suited in an intensive care unit.?
A. Case method
B. Primary care method
C. Team method
D. Functional method


Q. 48 What is the normal color of the amniotic fluid when the bag of water ruptures.?
A. As like water
B. Bluish
C. Yellowish
D. Brownish
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Q. 49 Which of the following measures would the nurse include in the teaching plan
about the method to prevent breast engorgement in post-partum period.?
A. Decreasing fluid intake for the first 24 to 48 hours
B. Breastfeeding neonate at frequently intervals
C. Wearing a supportive brassiere with nipple Shields
D. Feeding the Neonate a maximum of 5 minutes per side on first day



Q. 50 Which of the following can lead to greenish discoloration of the amniotic
fluid.?
A. Lanugo
B. Hydramnios
C. Vernix
D. Meconium


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KCI Bangalore 251 Staff Nurse Vacancy 2018 Apply Now

KCI Bangalore 251 Staff Nurse Vacancy 2018 Apply Now 



Government in their order No. Akuka 160 KVM 2018, Dated:02.05.2018 has directed Karnataka Examinations Authority to conduct Competitive Examination to the eligible B.Sc. Nursing/GNM Diploma, B.Sc./Diploma in OT/RD/Medical Lab, B.Sc/ Diploma Pharmacy, M.Sc in Medical Lab Technology candidates for recruitment to the posts of Staff Nurse/ Technician/Pharmacist in Kidwai Cancer Institute Bangalore.  KCI Bangalore 251 Staff Nurse Vacancy   2018 Details Like Name of Post, No of Post, Age Limit, Pay Scale, Qualifications, Application Mode, & Last Date of Application are Given Below - 




➧ KCI Bangalore 251 Staff Nurse Vacancy 2018 Details - 

Name & No of Post - 

  • Staff Nurse  -                                                                251 Post
  • Pharmacist  -                                                                 02 Post
  • Cyto Technician -                                                         03 Post 
  • Laboratory Technician -                                            01 Post 
  • Junior Medical Laboratories Technologist-      09 Post 
  • Medical Imaging Technologist -                              02 Post
  • T. Technician   -                                                              03 Post 
  • Cyt0 Technologist  -                                                       01 Post
  • Graduate Pharmacist -                                                 01 Post
  • Assistant Research Scientist -                                   05 Post 





➧ KCI Bangalore 251 Staff Nurse Vacancy 2018 Details - 


Name of Post -  Staff Nurse


No of Post -        251 Post


Age Limit -          38 Years


Pay Scale -           Rs.- 33450-62600/-


Qualifications - 

a. Those who are applying for B.Sc.posts - Must possess a Degree in B.Sc. Nursing from the recognized institute.

b. Those who are applying for Diploma posts - Must possess a certificate in General Nursing Course of not less than 3 years and a certificate in Midwifery or Psychiatric Nursing course of not less than 6 months from the recognized institute

and

c. The registration in Karnataka Nursing Council is mandatory for both the posts.

NOTE: The educational qualifications prescribed by the Competent Authority in regulations /guidelines issued from time to time shall be applicable in deciding the eligibility


COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION - PAPERS: All eligible candidates should appear for the Competitive Examination conducted by Karnataka Examinations Authority. (Multiple Choice Questions in English) Total marks - 200, Duration - 180 Minutes, Minimum pass marks 100. Competitive Examination will be conducted in one session.


METHOD OF SELECTION: Selection of candidates will be made by a Committee constituted in the Kidwai Cancer Institute, on the basis of merit list prepared by the Karnataka Examinations Authority by following the policy of reservations in State. The Karnataka Examinations Authority will prepare a merit list on the basis of the marks secured by the candidates in the competitive examination. If the aggregate percentage of the total marks secured in the Competitive Examination of two or more candidates is equal, the order of merit in respect of such candidates shall be fixed on the basis of their age, the person older in age being placed higher in the order of merit.


Application Mode -     ONLINE 


Application Fees - 

For General Merit and Others  - Rs.l,OOO/- Each post

For Scheduled Caste,Scheduled Tribes &  Category-i. - Rs.500/- each post

For Differently abled candidates (Candidates with 400/0 and above disability and who are having a certificate to that effect from District Surgeon-)  - No fees



Last Date of Application -      29/06/2018



Important Dates - 

Commencement of Entry of Application Online:-       From 11.00 am on 29.05.2018

Last Date to Enter Application details online -            up to 5.30 pm on 29.06.2018

Last date to pay the fees in the Specified Bank/s -       up to 4.00 pm on 30.06.2018

Downloadingof AdmissionTicketson or after:-             Will be notified by KEA




➧For More Details & Information About Vacancy Download Official Vacancy Notification Given Below Or Visit Official Website Here- http://kea.kar.nic.in OR  http:L1kea.kar.nic.in


Download Notification  CLICK HERE







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Download NIMHANS Staff Nurse Exam 2018 Question Paper PDF

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Download AIIMS Bhopal Nursing Officer Gr-I Exam 2018 Question Paper PDF  . AIIMS Bhopal Conduct Staff Nurse Gr- I Exam 0n 22 May 2018 in 2018  . Now You Can Download this Question Paper PDF from Our Website . Download Link are given below
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Hello Dear Nursing Student. Are you Preparing for competitive Nursing Exam Like 
AIIMS PGIMER JIPMER DSSSB RAILWAY ESIC AND MANY MORE. And Wants To Download Previous Year Staff Nurse Grade II Recruitment QUESTIONS PAPERS PDF For Reading and Improve You Competitive Examination Questions. We Know That Every Nursing Student who prepare himself for competitive nursing exam. He/she wantTo Download Previous Year Staff Nurse Grade II Recruitment QUESTIONS PAPERS PDF For Reading and prepare Questions For Competitive Nursing Exam. Every Nursing Student Who Completed You Nursing.. He/she Wants to Get A Good Government Job Imidiately. If You Have Prepare For Competitive Nursing Exam LIKE AIIMS PGIMER JIPMER DSSSB RAILWAY ESIC etc. You Need To Review You All Nursing Subject Completely. And Continue You Study. When You Preparing For Any Competitive Examination You Need to Know About there Syllabus, Exam Pattern, selection process and more about Hiring Authority. 





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Q.01. Causes of dysmenorrhea?
A. Myoma
B. Endometriosis
C. Choriocarcinoma
D. Hydatiform mole


Q.02. luteal phase defect or absent of progesterone can lead to?
A. Abortion
B. Early pregnancy bleeding
C. Molar pregnancy
D. APH


Q.03. Drug used in major depression of a child 10 year old.?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Haloperidol
C. Risperidone
D. Chlorpromazine
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Q.04. Rapid cycler depression, the episode seen is?
A. 1 or more cycle in a year
B. 2 or more cycle in a year
C. 3-4 cycle in a year
D. More than 4 cycles in a year


Q.05. Ratio of pulse and cereals in Mid-day meal program
A. 3:1 or 5:1
B. 5:2 or 5:1
C. 4:1 or 1:4


Q.06. Physiological jaundice occur in after?
A. 20-30 hrs.
B. 30-70 hrs.
C. 40-80 hrs.
D. 80-120 hrs.


Q.07. Heart rate of new born is.?
A. 140-160
B. 120-140
C. 100-120
D. 80-100


Q.08. Prophylactic level of lithium is?
A. 0.5 to 1.2
B. 0.7 to 1.2
C. 1 to 1.5
D. 1.5 to 2


Q.09. Neonate age of (40 week) iron supplement as early as ?
A. 6 Week
B. 4 Month
C. 6 Month
D. 8 Month
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Q.10. Protein supplement of a 10 year old child?
A. 32 gm
B. 30 gm
C. 34 gm
D. 35 gm


Q.11. Tic disorder is also known as?
A. Pica
B. Habit spasm
C. Dyslalia
D. Diaphasia


Q.12. Treatment of sickle cell crisis?
A. Blood transfusion or iron therapy
B. Oxygen or analgesic
C. Rest or heparin


Q.13. Occupational health nurse role according to ergonomic principle.
A. Health educator
B. Health care provider
C. Health coordinator
D. Environmental health


Q.14. Measles complication encephalitis is seen in.
A. 1:10000
B. 1:100
C. 1: 1000
D. 1: 100000
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Q.15. Formative evaluation is a type of ?
A. Internal evaluation
B. Diagnostic evaluation
C. External evaluation
D. Clarify evaluation


Q.16. 1500 gm labor are death in born time
A. Abortion
B. Neonatal mortality
C. Infant morality
D. Perinatal


Q.17. Most of Indian medicine-
A. Siddha
B. Unani
C. Acupuncture
D. Homeopathy


Q.18. In brain injury polyurea, and decrease specific gravidity
A. DM Type-1
B. DM Type-2
C. Addition’s Disease
D. Diabetes Insipidus


Q.19. Autonomic dysreflexia caused by?
A. Neurogenic shock
B. Noxious stimuli
C. Lumbosacral injury


Q.20. Coagulation necrosis seen in
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Q.21. In Type 1st hypersensitivity release of which gamma globin
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Q.22. Snow storm appearance seen in which condition?


Q.23. SIADH in cancer, cause?


Q.24. Benedict test is use for detection of.......?


Q.25. Drug of choice in eclampsia...??


Q.26. Most common site for IM injection in adults..??


Q.27. Total lung capacity?


Q.28. Tuberculin test read out after.......hours


Q.29. Most common symptoms in Asthma.?


Q.30. Term use for Removal of uterus...?


Q.31. Height of the new born baby...cm?


Q.32. How much time is necessary for come out placenta after delivery...??


Q.33. In lumber puncture needle insertion between...... to......?


Q.34. Most common cause of UTI.?


Q.35. A table spoon is equal to......ml


Q.36. Most common fracture in children...??


Q.37. Position use in pelvic surgery...??


Q.38. loss of personal identity known as.?


Q.39. Paralysis of both lower limb known as.?


Q.40. Giving IM injection in infants site is.?


Q.41. Infectious mononucleosis is caused by


Q.42. How many villages at Block level
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Q.43. Normal heart ‘rate of newborn


Q.44. Defense mechanism is used in


Q.45. Indication of ECT


Q.46. Calcium requirement during lactation period-


Q.47. Drug used to treat trigeminal neuralgia-


Q.48. Cranial nerve which responsible for Pupil's reaction is-


Q.49. Multiple sclerosis is occurs due to -


Q.50. Tried symptoms of Parkinson disease
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Q.51. IOP Measured by -


Q.52. Romberg test positive indicates -

Q.53. Ossender sign -

Q.54. Baby born dead weight with 1200gm is termed as-

Q.55. Main symptoms seen with Anorexia Nervosa-


Q.56. Obsession is due to -

Q.57. Postnatal mother visit for Postnatal urine test the urine test is done to identify

Q.58. Soccer shaped abdomen is seen -

Q.59. Sodium retention during pregnancy is due to-

Q.60. Tried symptoms of Meiners disease-

Q.61. Loss of vision on half of right of the both eyes is termed as-


Q.62. Client uses unrecognized speech in which their is no meaning is termed as-

Q.63. Barrier of communication is -

Q.64. Doing harmful to the patient with no proper care is termed as-

Q.65. How much dose of Anti D RhoGAM is given after delivery of baby with rh -ve
factor-

Q.66. Primary care of nursing in client with 30℅ lower extremity Burns -

Q.67. Effectiveness of mannitol is evaluated by -

Q.68. Primary symptoms of Increased intra cranial pressure-
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Q.69. Fallowing the symptoms seen in Glaucoma

Q.70. Myasthenia gravis occurs due to deficiency which neurotransmitter

Q.71. learning ability and memory is related which lobes


Q.72. Injury to the brain stem nurses mainly keeps obvers on


Q.73. Post-operative observation of nurses for client with liver biopsy


Q.74. Which of the fallowing assessment would nurse do to Clint with cardiac
catheterization-

Q.75. The medication used to prevent CVA is

Q.76. Cognitive theory is developed by

Q.77. Position used for pregnant woman in first ‘stage of labor is -
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Q.78. Nurses is suspects about which of the fallowing condition is Contra indication
for Lumbar puncture


Q.79. Client with neurogenic bladder the nurse advise for Client is -

Q.80. Client with Sub arachnoid hemorrhage asses for -

Q.81. The principal symptoms of schizophrenia is -


Q.82. Opportunistic infection in client with HIV is occurs due to -

Q.83. Client with sickle cell crisis' primary management is

Q.84. Down syndrome is due to trisomy of -

Q.85. Client with SDH and voided urine 18-20 liters per day is due to

Q.86. Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions is due to

Q.87. Tuberculin skin test result is seen after hoe many hours

Q.88. After home delivery the nurse advice to mothers regarding

Q.89. Iron supplement should be started in infant with age of-

Q.90. Enema volume used for infant is

Q.91. Refractive error in which object form in behind of retina is termed as -






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NHM Punjab 545 Staff Nurse & 114 ANM Vacancy 2018 Apply Now

NHM Punjab 545 Staff Nurse & 114 ANM Vacancy 2018 Apply Now



Application are invited from the eligible Candidates for filling up of the following vacant posts Available under National Health Mission[NHM] Punjab Govt. NHM Punjab 545 Staff Nurse & 114 ANM Vacancy 2018 Details Like Name of Post, No of Post, Age Limit, Pay Scale, Qualifications, Application Mode, & Last Date of Application are Given Below - 




➧ NHM Punjab 545 Staff Nurse & 114 ANM Vacancy 2018 Details - 

Name & No of Post - 

  • Staff Nurse  -                             545 Post
  • ANM              -                              114 Post
  • Pharmacist  -                             105 Post
  • Laboratory Technician -       65 Post 
  • Ayurveda Medical Officer -  88 Post 





➧ NHM Punjab 545 Staff Nurse & 114 ANM Vacancy 2018 Details - 


Name of Post -   Staff Nurse


No of Post -         545 Post


Age Limit -          18-37 years


Pay Scale -           Rs. 10,000/- p.m


Qualifications - 

Diploma in GNM from a recognized institution, Registered with Punjab Nursing Registration Council

OR

B.Sc Nursing from a recognized institution. Registered with Punjab Nursing Registration Council.




Application Mode -    ONLINE


Application Fees - 

General & other categories- Rs.550
SC/ST & BC of Punjab:- Rs. 275

Methods of Recruitment - The written test shall be of 90 Marks. In addition, there shall be a Skill test of 10 marks, which shall be conducted of only such shortlisted candidates in order of merit in the written test as the department may decide and the final selection shall be made on the basis of combined merit of written test and skill test.

Terms and conditions:

 All posts will be on contractual basis initially for 1 year to be renewed on the basis of work, conduct and performance every year.

 Educational qualifications must be from a recognized University/ Board as per details mentioned against each post

 Only those candidates who have passed Punjabi subject in Matriculation standard are eligible to apply.

 The SC/ BC Category certificate should be in accordance with the instructions of the Department of Welfare Punjab and the certificate for the Ex-Serviceman, Freedom fighters and Sports persons categories should be in accordance with instructions of the Concerned Department as per the followings details:-

 No TA, DA will be paid for the journeys performed for the written test/ counseling.


 The candidates applying for more than one post shall have to apply separately, along with necessary fee.

 The date, time and venue of the written test shall be communicated to all candidates through website:- http://bfuhs.ac.in and http://www.pbnrhm.org/career1.aspx.

 For any assistance, please contact at 0172-4012019 & 4012021.


Important Dates-    

Start of Online System- 01.06.2018

Last Date of submission of online application form Date:- 23.06.2018

Last date deposit of fee by Bank Challan Date:- 26.06.2018

Date of Written Test - Will be intimated on University’s website and will be published in the newspapers.




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