National Institute for Locomotor Disabilities Staff Nurse Vacancy 2018 Apply Now

National Institute for Locomotor Disabilities Staff Nurse Vacancy 2018 Apply Now   

Applications are invited from eligible Indian Citizens to fill up the following posts of this Institute purely on Contract Basis. The details of the posts as under. National Institute for Locomotor Disabilities Staff Nurse Vacancy 2018 Details Like Name of Post, No of Post, Age Limit, Pay Scale, Qualifications, Application Mode, & Last Date of Application are Given Below - 




➧ National Institute for Locomotor Disabilities Staff Nurse Vacancy 2018 Details - 

Name & No of Post - 


  • Staff Nurse  - 02 Post 





➧National Institute for Locomotor Disabilities Staff Nurse Vacancy 2018 Details - 


Name of Post -    Staff Nurse


No of Post -          02 Post


Age Limit -           Not Mention


Pay Scale -           On consolidated amount of Rs.20,000/- per month.


Qualifications - 

i.)Diploma in General Nursing & Midwifery from a recognized University / Institution with three years experience.
ii) Registered as Nurse and Midwife under Indian Nursing Council Act 1947 / any State Nursing Council
Preference: - B. Sc. (Nursing)/ Post Basic Diploma in Ortho. & Rehab. Nursing
 


Application Mode -    OFFLINE



Application Send To - 

The Director, 
National Institute for Locomotor Disabilities (Divyangjan), 
B.T. Road, Bon-Hooghly, Kolkata-700090



Last Date of Application -      14/05/2018




GENERAL CONDITIONS:

1) Applications duly completed in all respects and signed by the candidates in the prescribed format along with self attested photocopies of relevant enclosures in respect of qualifications, age proof, experience, etc. should reach to the Director, National Institute for Locomotor Disabilities (Divyangjan), B.T. Road, Bon-Hooghly, Kolkata-700090 within 21 days from the date of publication of this advertisement in the News paper.

2) Applications should neatly typed/hand written on A/4 size plain paper as per the prescribed format. All Columns of the application form should fill up and no column should be left blank.

3) Applications received through e-mail/late/incomplete will not be considered and the Institute will not be responsible for any postal delay.

4) Applications incomplete in any respect and not accompanied by copies of mark sheets / certificates / proof of age, experience (present & previous) / other relevant documents, photograph, unsigned and not in the prescribed format will be summarily rejected.

5) The prescribed essential qualifications & experience are the minimum and mere possession of the same does not entitle a candidate to be called for written test/skill test/interview.

6) Candidates must ensure before applying that they are eligible according to criteria stipulated in the advertisement. If the candidate is found ineligible at any stage of recruitment process he / she will be disqualified and their candidature cancelled. Hiding of information or submitting false information will lead to cancellation of candidature at any stage of recruitment.

7) The decision of the competent authority in all matters relating to eligibility, acceptance or rejection of applications etc. will be final and binding on the candidates and no enquiry or correspondence will be entertained in this connection. The Institute reserves the right to reject any or all applications without giving any reason whatsoever.

8) Candidates are advised to submit all relevant copies (Mark sheets & Certificates) in support of their Academic/Technical/ Professional qualifications and experience.

 9) The Institute does not undertake any responsibility for sending or replying to the candidates not selected or not called for Written Test / Skill Test / Interview, however important and relevant information will be displayed on website (www.niohkol.nic.in)

10) Canvassing and/or bringing influence in any form will disqualify the candidature.

11) The appointment will be purely on contract basis initially for a period of one year which may be extended at the discretion of the competent authority based on good conduct and target oriented performance of the employee.

12) Selected candidates will be posted at NILD, Kolkata.

13) Candidate should write the ‘Name of the Post’ applied for and Advertisement Number on the top of the envelope and separate envelopes should be used if applying for more than one post



➧For More Details & Information About Vacancy Download Official Vacancy Notification Given Below Or Visit Official Website Here-http://www.niohkol.nic.in


Download Notification  CLICK HERE



Download Application Format  CLICK HERE







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NPCIL Rawatbhata Rajasthan Staff Nurse Vacancy 2018 Apply Now

NPCIL Rawatbhata Rajasthan Staff Nurse Vacancy 2018 Apply Now 



NPCIL, a premier Public Sector Enterprise under Department of Atomic Energy, Government of India having comprehensive capability in all facets of Nuclear Technology namely, Site Selection, Design, Construction, Commissioning, Operation, Maintenance, Renovation, Modernization & Upgradation, Plant life Extension, Waste Management and Decommissioning of Nuclear Reactors in India under one roof, invites applications for its unit “Rawatbhata Rajasthan Site” for the following posts to share these challenging spectrum of responsibilities:




➧NPCIL Rawatbhata Rajasthan Staff Nurse Vacancy 2018 Details - 

Name & No of Post -


  • Nurse – A Female -  05 Post
  • Nurse – A Male -      03  Post




➧NPCIL Rawatbhata Rajasthan Staff Nurse Vacancy 2018 Details - 


Job Location  -      Rawatbhata Rajasthan


Name of Post -       Nurse – A Female/Male



No of Post  -            08 Post [05 For Female, 03 For Male]



Age Limit  -             18 to 30 years



Pay Scale  -              Rs.44,900/- (Pay in Pay Matrix in Level – 7)



Qualifications  - 

1. XII Standard & Diploma in Nursing & Midwifery (3 years course) + valid registration as Nurse from Central/State Nursing Council in India;
        OR
2. B.Sc.(Nursing)
        OR
3. Nursing “A” Certificate with 3 years’ experience in Hospital
       OR
Nursing Assistant Class III & above from the Armed forces

Note: Candidates possessing Degree in Nursing qualification may be considered for awarding of two additional increments.



Application Mode  -              ONLINE 



Last Date of Applications -    24/05/2018 



Selection Process -         Written Examination + Skill Test

The Written Examination will be in two stages-
Stage-1- Preliminary Test (1 Hour Duration)
Stage-2- Advanced Test (2 Hours Duration)

Stage-1 – Preliminary Test: It will be a screening examination to be held to shortlist candidates. The format of screening examination shall be common and will be in following format:

1. Examination will comprise 50 multiple choice questions (Choice of four answers) of 01 (one) hour duration in the following proportion:-

Mathematics -              20 Questions
Science  -                     20 Questions
General Awareness -   20 Questions

2. 03 (Three) marks to be awarded for each correct answer and 01 (one) mark to be deducted for each incorrect answer

3. Tests may be conducted in single/multiple sessions depending upon logistics requirements

4. Qualifying Standards : The qualifying standards shall be as follows:

General Category (UR) – 40% marks;
SC/ST/OBC/PWBD – 30% marks.
Accordingly, the General Candidates < 40% marks and the candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC/PWBD with < 30% marks will be screened out for Stage-2.


Stage-2 – Advanced Test [Test will be of 02 (two) hours duration]-


1. All candidates screened in Stage-1 to undertake an advanced test in their respective trade applicable for the post.

2. The Test will be of 02 (two) hours duration.

3. The level of questions will be related to their qualifying academic / professional / technical qualification.

4. The Test will comprise 50 Multiple choice questions (Choice of four answers) with 03 (Three) marks to be awarded for each correct answer and 01 (one) mark to be deducted for each incorrect answer.

5. Qualifying Standards: The qualifying standards shall be as follows:

General Category (UR) – 30% marks.
SC/ST/OBC/PWBD – 20% marks

 Accordingly, the General Candidates <30% marks and the candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC/PWBD with <20% marks will be screened out for Stage-3.
A merit list of candidates will be prepared after Stage-2 based upon scores obtained in Stage-2 only


Stage 3 : Skill Test-

1. Based upon the merit list prepared after Stage-2, candidates in each trade will be shortlisted for Skill
Test.

2. The skill test will be of qualifying nature only on Go / No Go basis

3. The number of candidates shortlisted for Skill Test would depend upon the number of candidates qualifying for Stage-2 but will not exceed 5 times the number of vacancies for each post.

4. Candidates clearing the Skill Test to be shortlisted and empanelled in order of merit based on marks secured in Stage-2.



➧For More Details & Information About Vacancy Download Official Vacancy Notification Given Below Or Visit Official Website Here- http://www.npcil.nic.in


Download Notification  CLICK HERE







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Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 19 with Answer

Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 19 with Answer

Staff nurse exam Modal Paper is Useful for nursing students who prepare for staff nurse Recruitment exam

like 
AIIMS,JIPMER,PGIMER,GMCH,DSSSB,RRB,RUHS,BHU,AMU,SCTIMST,KPSC,RPSC,HPSSSB,HSSC,IGNOU ESIC and All other Staff nurse exam .you can download this question paper in pdf format link given at the end of paper.












➧Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 19 with Answer


  •     [Total Questions - 50 with Answers]




Q. 01 Imbalance or in-coordination of muscle that moves the eyeball is found in
A. Conjunctivitis
B. Squint strabismus
C. Cataract
D. Glaucoma


Q. 02 A nurse in the labour room is caring for a client in the active stage of labour.
The nurse is assessing the fetal patterns and notes a late deceleration on the monitor
strip. The appropriate nursing action is to -
A. Administer oxygen via face mask
B. Place the mother in a supine position
C. Increase the rate of the Oxytocin (pitocin) intra venous infusion
D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the fetal patterns



Q. 03 After an amniotomy has been performed, a nurse should first assess -
A. For cervical dilation
B. For bladder distention
C. The maternal blood pressure
D. The fetal heart rate pattern


Q. 04 A client in labour has been pushing effectively for 1 hour. A nurse determines
that client’s primary physiological need at this time is to -
A. Ambulate
B. Rest between contractions
C. Change positions frequently
D. Consume oral food and fluids
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Q. 05 A nurse is monitoring a client in the immediate post-partum period for signs of
hemorrhage. Which of the following signs, if noted, would be an early sign of
excessive blood loss?
A. A temperature of 100.4 degree F
B. A blood pressure change from 130/88 to 124/80 mmHg
C. An increase in the pulse rate from 88 to 102 beats/min
D. An increase in the respiratory rate from 18 to 22 beats/min


Q. 06 A nurse is preparing a plan of care for a newborn with fetal alcohol syndrome.
The nurse should include which priority intervention in the plan of care?
A. Allow the newborn to establish own sleep rest pattern
B. Maintain the newborn in a brightly lighted area of the nursery
C. Encourage frequent handling of the newborn by staff and parents
D. Monitor the newborn’s response to feedings and weight gain pattern



Q. 07 A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving Oxytocin (pitocin) to induce
labour. The nurse discontinues the Oxytocin infusion if which of the following is
noted on assessment of the client?
A. Fatigue
B. Drowsiness
C. Uterine hyper stimulation
D. Early deceleration of the fetal heart rate


Q. 08 A client in preterm labour (31 weeks) who is dilated to 4 cm has been started on
magnesium sulfate and contractions have stopped. If the client’s labour can be
inhibited for the next 48 hours, what medication does the nurse anticipate will be
prescribed?
A. Betamethasone
B. Nalbuphine (Nubain)
C. Rh (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)
D. Dinoprostone (Cervidil vaginal insert)


Q. 09 The opioid analgesic is administered to a client in labour. The nurse assigned to
care for the client ensures that which medication is really available if respiratory
depression occurs?
A. Betamethasone
B. Morphine sulfate
C. Naloxone (Narcan)
D. Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol)
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Q. 10 In multipara, time period of latent phase in partograph is about –

A. 4 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 12 hours breach of duty
D. 16 hours


Q. 11 The nurse, who has received no recent immunization, is stuck with needle that
had been used on the patient. Which of the following is this nurse at greater risk of
contracting?
A. HIV
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Scabies


Q. 12 Early amniocentesis is done in which period of pregnancy -

A. 12-14 weeks
B. 14-16 weeks
C. 16-18 weeks
D. 9-11 weeks


Q. 13 21-year old Rashmi has arrived with c/o cramping abdominal pain and mild
vaginal bleeding. Culdocentesis shows blood in the culdesa. This client probably has
which of the following conditions?
A. Abruptio placentae
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Hydatidiform mole
D. Pelvic inflammatory disease


Q. 14 A patient 34 weeks pregnant, arrives at the hospital with severe abdominal pain,
uterine tenderness and an increased uterine tone. The patient most likely has which of
the following?
A. Abruptio placentae
B. Placenta previa
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Hydatidiform mole


Q. 15 Which of the following explanations best explains why a pregnant client should
lie on her left side when resting or sleeping in the later stage of pregnancy?
A. To facilitate digestion
B. To facilitate bladder emptying
C. To prevent compression of vena cava
D. To avoid fetal anomalies
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Q. 16 A woman has just given birth at 42 weeks of gestation. When assessing the
neonate, which physical finding is expected?
A. A sleepy, lethargic baby
B. Lanugo covering body
C. Desquamation of the epidermis
D. Vernix caseosa covering the body


Q. 17 A client is receiving MgSO4 therapy for severe pre-eclampsia. The nurse must
be alert for which of the following signs of excessive blood magnesium level?
A. Increase in respiratory rate
B. Sensorium stimulation
C. Disappearance of knee-jerk reflex
D. Appearance of cardiac dysarrythmias


Q. 18 After reviewing the woman’s maternal history of magnesium sulfate during
labor, which condition would the nurse anticipate as a potential problem in the
neonate?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Jitteriness
C. Respiratory depression
D. Tachycardia



Q. 19 27-year old Meera states that after the delivery she has noticed some of
episodes of sadness and tearfulness. Which of the following is the most appropriate
diagnosis?
A. Maternity blues
B. Postpartum depression
C. Postpartum mania
D. Postpartum psychosis
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Q. 20 Which one of the following is the ideal contraceptive for a patient with heart

disease?
A. IUCD
B. Depo-Provera
C. E-pills
D. Oral contraceptive pills


Q. 21 An important landmark of the pelvis that determines the distance of the descent
of head is known as
A. Linea terminals
B. Sacurm
C. Ischial spines
D. Ischial tuberosities


Q. 22 Measles vaccine is kept in refrigerator in -
A. Chilled tray
B. Freezer
C. Tray below freezer
D. Shelves in the door


Q. 23 Disinfectant used for water purification is -
A. 5 gm bleaching powder for 100 liter of water
B. 10 gm chlorine for one liter of water
C. 2% ethanol solution for one liter of water
D. 5 mg potassium permanganate


Q. 24 Fertility rate can be reduced by -
A. Spacing of pregnancy
B. Early marriage
C. Female literacy
D. Compulsory sterilization


Q. 25 The father of Germ theory of disease was
A. Louis Pasteur
B. Newton
C. Virginia Apgav
D. Albert Einstein
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Q. 26 All are true indicators of health for all except -
A. Family size
B. Annual growth rate 1 : 2
C. Life expectancy 64 years
D. IMR < 60


Q. 27 IUCD acts -
A. Killing spermatozoa
B. Aseptic inflammation of endometrium
C. Increase cervical mucus
D. Preventing the fertilization of ova


Q. 28 Under the National Population Policy, family size should be brought down to -
A. 1
B. 2.3
C. 3.2
D. 4.2


Q. 29 Dengue fever is also called as -
A. Enteric fever
B. Q fever
C. Break bone fever
D. Brain fever


Q. 30 Which of the following is not a minor ailment?
A. Injuries fall and burn
B. Chest pain in a heart patient
C. Diarrhoea
D. Heart stroke and fainting
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Q. 31 Consent from guardian for MTP is required if -
A. Female is unmarried
B. Female is below 33 years of age
C. Female is divorced
D. Female is below 17 years of age


Q. 32 Which is the most suitable method for disposal of night soil in the rural areas?
A. Biogas plant
B. Composting
C. Dumping
D. Manure pit


Q. 33 Orthotolidine test is used to determine -
A. Nitrate in water
B. Potassium in water
C. Ammonia in water
D. Free combined chlorine in water


Q. 34 Vector borne diseases are transmitted by -
A. Air
B. Water
C. Animals
D. Insects


Q. 35 As per Birth and Death Registration Act, the birth should be registered within
A. 5 days
B. 7 days
C. 14 days
D. 21 days


Q. 36 Megaloblastic anemia is caused due to deficiency of -
A. B12
B. B2
C. B6
D. B1
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Q. 37 Recommended site for administer of DPT in infant is -
A. Gluteal
B. Deltoid
C. Linear aspect of thigh
D. Forearm


Q. 38 Floating tip of the iceberg represents -
A. Clinical cases
B. Apparent cases
C. Latent cases
D. Un-diagnosed cases


Q. 39 False about leprosy eradication programme is -
A. Early detection of cases
B. Disability imitation
C. Long term multi drug therapy
D. Health education


Q. 40 Case finding in RNTCP is based on -
A. Sputum culture
B. Sputum microscopy
C. X-ray chest
D. Mantoux test/PCR


Q. 41 PAP smear is the example of -
A. Primordial prevention
B. Primary prevention
C. Secondary prevention
D. tertiary prevention
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Q. 42 The most common degenerate joint disease in the elderly, often caused by wear
and tear is -
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Gouty arthritis
D. Ankylosing spondylitis


Q. 43 Haemopoiesis is a process of the production of -

A. Blood plasma
B. Erythrocytes
C. Bone marrow
D. Haemoglobin


Q. 44 Which of the following is not required for clot formation?
A. Vitamin K
B. Calcium
C. Plasmin
D. Blood cell


Q. 45 The wave of contraction is under the control of -
A. Parasympathetic nerve
B. Mandibular nerve
C. Phrenic nerve
D. Auditory nerve


Q. 46 Which of the following is not the function of the liver?
A. Carbohydrate, lipid and protein metabolism
B. Excretion of bilirubin
C. Nucleic acid metabolism
D. Synthesis of bile salts and activation of Vitamin D
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Q. 47 Which part of brain is associated with control of breathing?
A. Midbrain
B. Pons
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Both (b) and (c)


Q. 48 Which part of brain regulates posture and balance?
A. Midbrain
B. Cerebellum
C. Diencephalon
D. Cerebrum
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Q. 49 Hormones are -
A. Enzymes
B. Proenzymes
C. Inorganic chemicals
D. Organic chemicals


Q. 50 Myxedema is caused by the deficiency of a hormone secreted by
A. Parathyroid
B. Hypothalamus
C. Thyroid
D. Pineal body

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